Best Of Five Mcqs For The Gastroenterology Sce Pdf Access

A) Repeat upper endoscopy with duodenal biopsies B) CT colonography C) Capsule endoscopy D) Meckel’s scan E) Faecal immunochemical test (FIT) Answer & Explanation Answer: C – Capsule endoscopy Obscure GI bleeding/iron deficiency with normal bidirectional endoscopy – capsule endoscopy to visualise small bowel (angiodysplasia, tumours, Crohn’s). CT colonography for colon, not small bowel. FIT is for lower GI screening. A 55-year-old woman with primary biliary cholangitis (PBC) is on ursodeoxycholic acid (UDCA). After 12 months, alkaline phosphatase remains 2.5× upper limit of normal. What is the most appropriate additional therapy?

A) Oral prednisolone 40 mg daily B) Intravenous ciclosporin C) Infliximab D) Oral budesonide multimatrix (MMX) E) Colectomy Answer & Explanation Answer: A – Oral prednisolone Moderate ulcerative colitis failing mesalazine – next step is oral corticosteroids (prednisolone). Budesonide MMX is less effective in moderate-left-sided disease. Ciclosporin/infliximab for severe or steroid-refractory. Colectomy for severe refractory/toxic megacolon. A 40-year-old man has iron deficiency anaemia. Upper and lower GI endoscopy are normal. He has no overt bleeding. Coeliac serology is negative. What is the most appropriate next investigation? best of five mcqs for the gastroenterology sce pdf

A) Intravenous terlipressin alone B) Band ligation of varices C) Injection sclerotherapy D) Balloon tamponade with a Sengstaken-Blakemore tube E) Transjugular intrahepatic portosystemic shunt (TIPS) Answer & Explanation Answer: B – Band ligation Endoscopic band ligation is the definitive treatment for actively bleeding oesophageal varices. Terlipressin is a bridge, not definitive. Sclerotherapy is second-line. Balloon tamponade is a temporary salvage measure. TIPS is for refractory bleeding after failed endoscopy. A 30-year-old woman presents with chronic diarrhoea, bloating, and weight loss. IgA-tissue transglutaminase antibodies are strongly positive. Duodenal biopsies show villous atrophy. She is started on a gluten-free diet but symptoms persist after 6 months. What is the most appropriate next investigation? A) Repeat upper endoscopy with duodenal biopsies B)

A) Acute tubular necrosis B) Hepatocellular carcinoma C) Spontaneous bacterial peritonitis D) Hepatorenal syndrome (HRS-AKI) E) Post-renal acute kidney injury Answer & Explanation Answer: D – Hepatorenal syndrome (HRS-AKI) Urine Na A 35-year-old woman with colicky right upper quadrant pain. Ultrasound shows multiple gallbladder polyps, the largest being 12 mm. What is the most appropriate management? A 55-year-old woman with primary biliary cholangitis (PBC)

A) Repeat serum lipase in 24 hours B) Endoscopic ultrasound with fine needle aspiration (EUS-FNA) C) MRCP D) CA 19-9 E) Diagnostic laparoscopy Answer & Explanation Answer: B – EUS-FNA Pancreatic head mass + obstructive symptoms – EUS-FNA is the best next step for tissue diagnosis. MRCP if biliary anatomy unclear but tissue needed. CA 19-9 is not diagnostic. A 25-year-old man with Crohn’s disease (ileocolonic) on azathioprine presents with acute severe right iliac fossa pain, fever, and vomiting. CT shows a 4 cm phlegmonous mass with an adjacent small-bowel loop and no free air. What is the most appropriate management?